Seller Finance Question

scott0049 profile photo
Not sure where to post this question. I have seen many comments on this site about not really having to worry about the due on sale clause. Especially with lease options and sub2 deals. My question is if I still owe on a 1st mortgage and I seller finance a property with a contract for deed, since the deed stays in my name and does not transfer, would this send up any flags to my mortgage lender and cause the DOS? I ask because I am almost done rehabbing a property and can't decide if I will l/o it or just sell it and carry the financing myself, and would like to hear opinions about seller financing in this manner. Thanks Scott

Comments(0)

  • scott00492nd August, 2004
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    ^^^^^

  • tinkabout2nd August, 2004
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    No, you should be safe as long as you the deed stays in your name. You should get a real estate attorney to structure a contract for you if you are considering holding the note, just to be on the safe side. grin

  • hyundai2nd August, 2004
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    The chances of getting the Due on sale clause envoked is about as good as getting struck by lighting, twice, as long as the payments are being made.

    Have a good one,

    Andrew

  • scott00492nd August, 2004
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    Thank You. That gives me one more option to add to my flexibility in selling. Cool.

    Scott

  • LeaseOptionKing3rd August, 2004
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    What Andrew said.

  • kenmax3rd August, 2004
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    ditto....kenmax

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