FHA Assumption?

kfran1234 profile photo

Looking at a property scheduled for foreclosure auction next week. FHA loan. No luck contacting owner about assuming mortgage. Any chance the lender would consider this before aution? Or if I were the highest bidder at auction, is assumption a possibility or only outright purchase?

Comments(18)

  • BBagnall13th March, 2006

    A quit claim deed offers less protection than a warranty deed. There are no title warranties with a quit claim deed.

    You would not be assuming the loan. You would be purchasing the property "subject to" the existing financing. There is a difference. Find an attorney that knows and understands this difference.

    You would be able to get title insurance later on the quit claim deed if you were to go that route.

    If there is a lot of equity in the properties you could always try to get a hard money loan.

    Hope this helps.

  • GeorgiaPeach113th March, 2006

    Thanks for the info. Do you have any other suggestions as to how to structure this deal in a short time frame?

  • InActive_Account8th March, 2006

    The Sky is Falling! The Sky is Falling!

  • TheShortSalePro9th March, 2006

    "Senate To Kill Real Estate Investing!"

    Nonsense! Secrets for continued success:

    Tell the truth (full disclosures), abide by the laws,
    and, to coin a phrase, "do unto others....."

  • BoboTheKing11th March, 2006

    Well said lacashman.

  • bargain7613th March, 2006

    [ Edited by bargain76 on Date 03/13/2006 ]

  • ttime13th March, 2006

    lacashman,

    Great post.

    I am not able to connect to the link you posted. Maybe their server was down.

  • InActive_Account13th March, 2006

    For a level headed responce check out http://www.narhri.org Look in the breaking news section.

    If your not charging for Loss Mitigation or doing lease backs your not covered.

    I have always said to never let them stay.

  • herbgoat13th March, 2006

    Here is the petition url Hobz was talking about....

    http://www.petitiononline.com/fs2349/

  • InActive_Account13th March, 2006

    A little backgound behind the bill.

    http://www.ag.state.il.us/pressroom/2006_01/20060130.html

  • flack13th March, 2006

    yeah, so did the bill pass? if it did, is there any legal way around the 82% thing? is real property do-it-yourself dead in ILL now? thanks.

  • Stockpro9914th March, 2006

    I make a killing at 82% of FMV.

    the FMV is determined by a BPO or an appraisal which I influence and it has been rare that I ever closed a short sale for less than 82% of the BPO (which many times is 60% of FMV

    While not a fan of big government I have found that creative people always get around the legislation and find or creat new ways to invest profitably.

    Banks are in the business of making (not losing) money. They have their own stop loss measures and ratios regardless of what the government proposes. We investors are still making money working with them.

    I currently hold "0" properties and flip or rehab all of the 8-10 SS I am working at any given time for a nice profit.

    I owuld suggest writing the congressman in your state or at the national level as these bills come into their/your venue. I would not state that the "sky is falling"
    [addsig]

  • clarissa7114th March, 2006

    I noticed that the 1st & 2nd mortgage are held by the same lender. Would that bank bid the total amount owed of $582k on both the 1st & 2nd mortgage at the first auction or would they only bid up to amount owed on the 1st mortgage ($460k)?

  • bargain7614th March, 2006

    You can look at the LP and/or the Judgment to see who the Defendants are in the foreclosure of the 1st mortgage.

    If the Plaintiff (who owns the 1st and the 2nd) does not mention themselves as a Defendant, they are free to pursue foreclosure action on the 2nd. Which means the purchaser at the Courthouse who buys the 1st, is buying it subject to the 2nd.

    Or they could start the bidding at the combined value of 1st and 2nd. The moment of truth occurs at the first bid and the indication of how high the Plaintiff will go.
    [addsig]

  • clarissa7114th March, 2006

    If we are buying the 1st mortgage subject to the 2nd, would that be disclosed prior to the start of bidding?

  • BBagnall16th March, 2006

    I would imagine a HELOC check would qualify.

    This is just an educated guess though...not 100% sure.

  • BBagnall16th March, 2006

    You can strike a deal directly with the homeowner prior to the sale. To stop the foreclosure, you will need to bring the loan current.

    You should look into purchasing the property "subject to". There is a forum specifically dedicated to this subject.

    You could always assume the loan...but taking it subject to is better.

  • dannynj17th March, 2006

    Thanks i aprecciate your www.answer.I will keep you posted.

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