Finanacing Question
Say there is a property with 5 units for $100,000 for sale, appraised for the same $100,00.. If the seller were to finance 20% of the purchase and the bank the remainder, how much money down(normally) would I be required to give the bank given that the owner is taking 20% with 2,000 down?
The second part of my question is, what will be the positions of the bank and seller on the lien.?
Finally, when I go to the bank do I simply tell them that the owner is financing 20%? How does thispart work ?
thanks db 
I've never seen a commercial loan with 100% CLTV. The highest I've found is 95% with a 20% seller carry. You will need to bring 5% to the table plus closing costs (unless you get concessions).
The bank will be in first position and the seller will always be a subordinate lien.
See if the seller is willing to go the extra 5% for the full 25% down you can still pay him the $2,000 down if you like or pay it to the bank. I worked with a local bank on my first deal that allowed a 25% carryback with only $4,000 out of pocket. Also the commercial bldg. is right across the street from the bank's main branch but it worked out for everyone involved. It helps as well that you have a high FICO score going for this type of financing. It doesn't always work but it is the best I have found and I always try to put as little of my own money into any financing.